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2014年英语高考试卷,2014年英语高考试卷上海

tamoadmin 2024-08-02 人已围观

简介1.求福建省历年高考英语听力音频和原文2.谁有2010到2014年安徽高考英语完形填空翻译?拜托了3.2018年山西高考英语试卷试题及答案解析(WORD文字版)4.2014年河北省普通高考英语最高分5.广东高中2014年起,文理不分科,是不是指高考时要像中考一样按总分录取?而不是看文理的分?6.2018年云南高考英语试卷试题及答案解析(WORD文字版)7.2015江苏高考英语试题难不难高考改革方案

1.求福建省历年高考英语听力音频和原文

2.谁有2010到2014年安徽高考英语完形填空翻译?拜托了

3.2018年山西高考英语试卷试题及答案解析(WORD文字版)

4.2014年河北省普通高考英语最高分

5.广东高中2014年起,文理不分科,是不是指高考时要像中考一样按总分录取?而不是看文理的分?

6.2018年云南高考英语试卷试题及答案解析(WORD文字版)

7.2015江苏高考英语试题难不难

2014年英语高考试卷,2014年英语高考试卷上海

高考改革方案新闻发布会于2014年9月4日(星期四)上午10时举行。《院关于深化考试招生制度改革的实施意见》正式公布。

《2017年高考改革方案》已于7月8号正式颁布。这份全新的高考改革方案,对例如英语是否将退出高考等问题都做了详细规定。

全国高考改革方案初定为考语数外三门(注:指全国卷,下同),外语一年两考,再让学生选考三门,按五级制评价。高考改革方案具体如下:

1、高考命题杜绝繁难偏旧,基本以2013年的试题难度为标准;

2、2016年,英语将正式退出新高考(也就是6月7、8两天将没有英语考试),但是学生的会考成绩计入高考总分(A等100分,B等85分,C等70分),学生可以多次报考会考,最终以最好成绩为准;

3、在2016年之前,高考英语分值逐年降低:2015年,英语120分,相应的,语文将提高到180分;2016年,英语100分(会考),语文提高到200分;

4、除了少数民族加分政策以外,其它加分政策都将取消;

5、志愿填报也有微调:考前填报,但从明年开始执行平行志愿,第一志愿可以同时报2个,第二志愿可以同时报3个。

2017年英语分降 语文分增,2016年,高考文史类、理工类总分均为750分。语文(文理同卷)180分,数学(文)150分,数学(理)150分,文科综合320分,理科综合320分。英语文理同卷,实行社会化考试,一年两次考试,学生可多次参加。英语满分100分。

据了解,语文学科要加强对中华民族优秀传统文化的考查,充分体现语文的基础性和作为母语学科的重要地位,注重考查内容与社会生活实践的联系;发挥语文学习促进学生逻辑思维能力发展的重要作用,鼓励学生独立思考和个性发展。分值将由150分提高到180分。

数学学科要注重基本的数学能力、数学素养和学习潜能的考查,强调通性通法,注意数学应用,考查学生分析、解决综合问题的能力。考试分值仍然为150分。

英语学科要突出语言的实际应用,回归到学科应有的位置上,突出基础知识、基本能力及课标的基本要求,降低英语学科分数在高考招生中的权重。考试分值由150分降低到100分。实行社会化考试,一年两次考试,学生可多次参加,按最好成绩计入高考总分,成绩三年内有效。

求福建省历年高考英语听力音频和原文

一、全国乙卷省高考英语试卷真题和答案解析全国乙卷省高考英语试卷真题和答案解析正在快马加鞭的整理当真,考试结束后我们第一时间发布word文字版。考生可以在线点击阅览: ://.creditsailing/zt/gaokao/daxuepaiming.html

二、全国乙卷高考英语卷答题技巧

一、让学生充分认识到英语写作的重要性

学生英语写作能力的提高需要教师训练,如果学生对写作的重要性认识不够,他们就不能积极主动地配合老师,甚至产生逆反心理和对立情绪.在教学中,教师应经常性地、有意识地对学生进行关于写作重要性的教育.在高一阶段就让学生了解初中英语教学要求和高中英语教学要求的异同.在教学时,帮助学生分析了几份中考和高考试题,使学生了解中考英语试题和高考英语试题对基础知识和基本技能要求的异同,引导他们转变观念,更新和完善学习方法,让他们了解到英语写作的重要性.

二、教师要分步骤培养学生的写作能力

1.注重五种基本句型的训练是提高学生写作能力的前提.

首先,参考例文,分析句子成分,免得自己在写的时候犯低级错误.分析行文结构,如果自己的作文确实不好,可以模拟例文的框架.英语属于结构语言,它有自己的基本句型和固定搭配,学生要想在写作中用上它们,用好它们,必须加强这方面的训练,教师也应加强五种基本句型结构教学.几乎所有的英语句型都是五种基本句型的扩大、延伸或变化,因此训练学生“写”就要抓住五种基本句型的训练,让他们把这五种基本句型记牢,不断运用.五种基本句型是:(1)s+v;(2)s+v+o;(3)s+v+o+o;(4)s+v+p;(5)s+v+o+c.五种基本句型虽然能表达一定的意思,但无法很自由地表达思想,因此教师还必须对学生进一步进行扩句训练,在课堂上充分发挥学生的想象力,进行扩句练习.同时,教师要加强句型教学,对学生进行一意多种表达的训练.

2.注重写作训练的规范化是提高写作能力的必备条件.

高中起始阶段的写作训练,培养学生的写作模式是非常重要的.按教师用书上说明的写作步骤,即:构思、写提纲(理顺思想的逻辑关系)、起草(打草稿)、校订(检查错误,重新安排内容)、修改(定稿)对学生进行写作模式的训练,看起来比较麻烦,但避免了重复,有利于学生养成良好的写作习惯.教师要严格要求学生正确、端正、熟练地书写字母、单词和句子,注意大小写和标点符号.同时对各种文体特点、格式要讲清楚,使学生熟悉规范的书面表达形式,正确地评析和规范自己的书面表达.通过背诵训练写作.培养学生的英语写作能力,以课文为中心训练写作能力非常重要,因为课文中的句子就是规范的英语范文.因此,每学完一篇课文或对话,教师就要要求学生背诵,然后默写.这样使学生把词语放在句型、段落、篇章中去理解、记忆和体味,以至于能够仿写、改写.

3.注重教师的指导作用是提高学生写作能力的重要保障.

教师批改是写作教学的有机组成部分,批改过程中,教师的指导作用就在于肯定学生的成绩,指出错误,给学生以恰当的评价.但在批改过程中,如果抓住学生的错误不放,有错必纠,改到最后,就变成了教师自己的作品;如果对错误视而不见,写得再多也收效甚微.

三、全国乙卷哪些省份使用

适用地区:河南、山西、江西、安徽、甘肃、青海、内蒙古、黑龙江、吉林、宁夏、新疆、陕西

四、全国甲卷和乙卷的区别

1、乙卷难度比甲卷高。乙卷英语和物理科目能够明显看出来比甲卷难,不过一些学生会觉得甲卷更难一些,这根据学生学习的大体程度去判断。不过乙卷和甲卷都会在高考中使用。

2、乙卷和甲卷使用的省份不同。乙卷使用的省区:山西、河北、河南、安徽、湖北、湖南、江西、福建等等;甲卷使用的省区:陕西、重庆、青海、新疆、吉林、辽宁、内蒙古等等。

3、乙卷和甲卷里面的科目内容也不同。乙卷科目:英语和综合;甲卷科目:数学、语文、英语。 五、全国乙卷高考英语试卷答案解析 (一)、2022年全国乙卷高考英语试卷试题难不难,附试卷分析和解答 (二)、2019年高考全国乙卷英语试卷试题答案解析(WORD下载) (三)、2019年江西高考全国乙卷(I卷)英语试卷试题答案解析(WORD下载) (四)、2019年山西高考全国乙卷(I卷)英语试卷试题答案解析(WORD下载) (五)、2019年河北高考全国乙卷(I卷)英语试卷试题答案解析(WORD下载) (六)、2019年河南高考全国乙卷(I卷)英语试卷试题答案解析(WORD下载) (七)、2019年广东高考全国乙卷(I卷)英语试卷试题答案解析(WORD下载) (八)、2019年湖南高考全国乙卷(I卷)英语试卷试题答案解析(WORD下载) (九)、2019年福建高考全国乙卷(I卷)英语试卷试题答案解析(WORD下载) (十)、2019年湖北高考全国乙卷(I卷)英语试卷试题答案解析(WORD下载) ;

谁有2010到2014年安徽高考英语完形填空翻译?拜托了

2014年福建省高考英语听力原文

Text 1

W: Excuse me. This is the address. How do I find it?

M: Right. You’ll need a street map. Here’s one, and I’ll show you where it is.

Text 2

W: Oh my! My car broke down, and I he to meet my aunt at the railway station before noon.

M: You’re lucky. I can drop you off on my way.

Text 3

W: Did you hear that Mr. Peterson is coming next week, Gordon?

M: Yes, so I called all the department heads to my office this morning. We need to give him reports on our program.

Text 4

W: I hope you like the book I lent you. I wasn’t sure if you’d be interested.

M: I had the same dou at first. But once I started, I simply couldn’t put it down.

Text 5

W: What is going on? It’s May, and we still he to wear warm clothes.

M: Well, there’s some good news on the radio. You probably can wear shorts tomorrow.

Text 6

W: Harry, let’s play some ping-pong today.

M: I’d love to play a set or two, but my right arm hurts. I’ve decided to stop playing ping-pong until it feels better.

W: Well, how about going skating?

M: I’d like to, but my knee hurts, too.

W: Harry, stop making excuses! You’re just lazy.

M: No, I’m not! You know, there’s a basketball match on TV today. Let’s just stay home and watch it.

W: OK. You stay, and I’ll play with Helen.

Text 7

W: What do you want to do tonight?

M: How about going to the cinema? I should be home from work at 5:45. Then we can go out and eat before we see a film.

W: What do you want to see?

M: There’s a good art film at the Green House Cinema.

W: Let’s see…it starts at 6:15. I don’t think we can get there in time to see the beginning. How about the action film at the New State Cinema? It starts at 6:50. Perhaps the 7:00 one at the UME Cinema is even better. It stars Jackie Chan.

M: OK, that’s fine. I like him, too.

Text 8

M: Hey, Lucy. Do you he some time to talk about next week’s trip with me?

W: Sure, De.

M: OK. So, we’re leing on Monday from Hartsfield International Airport, and returning on Friday. Do we take ourselves to the airport? Maybe we need to book a taxi, or just go by bus.

W: No, we don’t he to. The company car will pick us up and take us there.

M: Oh, that’s good. When?

W: Our flight lees at 11:00 a.m., so they should pick us up between 8:00 and 9:00 a.m. Besides, the company pays for our trip, including hotel and food.

M: How much will that be?

W: Well, New York is a pretty expensive city. So, each of us will get $200 a day.

M: Oh, OK. Thanks for telling me that.

W: You’re welcome.

Text 9

W: Please sit down. Let’s see…you’re Mr. Smith. Is that correct?

M: Yes. John Smith.

W: And you’re interested in this job?

M: Yes, I am. I’ll graduate from college the coming June. My major is Chinese.

W: I see. He you ever done any work in this field?

M: Yes, I used to be a tour guide for Chinese trellers.

W: Good. Now, how much money do you expect to he for a year?

M: From what I’ve read, it seems that a starting pay would be around $12,000 a year.

W: Here, you would start at $10,500 for the first year…a kind of training period. Then you would go to $15,000.

M: That sounds fair enough. What do you think are the chances for me to get a job here?

W: Well, I’m talking to three people today and four tomorrow. We’ll be hiring two people. You’ll hear from us sometime next month. Good luck! And thanks for coming in today.

Text 10

M: Well, I’d love to share with you my personal opinions on city life and life in small towns. I grew up in a small town until I was 18 and then moved to a big city, so I he experienced the good and bad sides of both. I never thought that I would like living in a big city, but I was wrong. After ten years of living in one, I can’t imagine ever living in a small town again. Surely small towns and big cities both he some problems in terms of transport. In a small town, you he to own a car to make life comfortable. You can’t get around without one because there isn’t any kind of public transport. Big cities generally he hey traffic and expensive parking, but there you he a choice of taking public transport, which is cheaper than driving. So, if you don’t he a car, you’d better live in the city. I also love the exciting life in big cities. I can always enjoy a lot of films, concerts, and other wonderful shows. However, these things are not common in small towns. The final thing I like about large cities is that you can meet different kinds of people. However, you seldom find such a variety of people in a smaller town. I think that living in an area where everyone was just like me would quickly become dull. Of course, safety should be considered, and that’s one area where small towns are better than big cities. Still, I would rather be a bit more careful and live in a large city than to feel safe but dull.

第一节(共5小题,每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒种的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题,每段对话仅读一遍。

例:How much is the shirt?

A. £19.15 B. £9.18 C. £9.15

答案是C。

1.What does the woman want to do?

A. Find a place. B. Buy a map. C. Get an address.

2.What does the man do for the woman?

A. Repair her car B. Give her a ride C. Pick up her aunt.

3.Who might Mr. Peterson be?

A. A new professor B. A department head C. A company director.

4. What does the man think of the book?

A. Quite difficult. B. Very interesting. C. Too simple.

5. What are the speakers talking about?

A. Weather B. Clothes C. News.

第二节(共15小题,每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答6、7小题。

6. Why is Harry unwilling to join the woman?

A. He has a pain in his knee.

B. He wants to watch TV.

C. he is too lazy.

7. What will the woman probably do next?

A. Stay at home.

B. Take Harry to hospital.

C. Do some exercise.

听第7段对话,回答8、9小题。

8. When will the man be home from work?

A. At 5:45 B. At 6:15 C. At 6:50

9. Where will the speakers go?

A. The Green House Cinema. B. The New State Cinema. C. The UME Cinema.

听第8段对话,回答第10至12题。

10. How will the speakers go to New York?

A. By air. B. By taxi. C. By bus.

11. Why are the speakers making the trip?

A. For business. B. For shopping. C. For holiday.

12. What is the probalbe relationship between the speakers?

A. Driver and passenger B. Husband and wife C. Fellow workers.

听第9段对话,回答第13至16题。

13. Where does this conversation probably take place?

A. In a restaurant. B. In an office. C. In a classroom.

14. What does John do now?

A. He’s a trainer. B. He’s a tour guide. C. He’s a college student.

15. How much can a new person earn for the first year?

A. $10,500. B. $12,000. C. $15,000.

16. How many people will the woman hire?

A. Four B. Three C. Two

听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。

17. How long has the speaker lived in a big city?

A. One year. B. Ten years. C. Eigh years

18. What is the speaker’s opinion on public transport?

A. It’s comfortable B. It’s time-sing C. It’s cheap.

19. What is good about living in a small town?

A. It’s safer. B. It’s healthier. C. It’s more convenient.

20. What kind of life does the speaker seem to like most?

A. Busy. B. Colourful. C. Quiet.

2018年山西高考英语试卷试题及答案解析(WORD文字版)

2010年

Most people give little thought to the Pens they write with, especially since the printer. In modern homes and offices mean that very 36 things are handwritten.All too often,people buy a pen based only on 37 ,and wonder why they are not satisfied 38 They begin to use it.However,buying a Pen that you'11 enjoy is not 39 if You keep the following in mind.

First of all.a pen should fit comfortably in your hand and be 40 to use.The thickness of the pen is the most important characteristic(特征) 4l comfort.Hing a small hand and thick fingers,you may be comfortable with a thin pen. If you he a 42 hand and thicker fingers,you may 43 a fatter pen.The length of 8 pen call 44 influence comfort.A pen that is t00 45 can easily feel top-hey and unstable.

Then,the writing point of the pen should 46 the ink to flow evenly(均匀地)while the pen remains in touch with the paper. 47 will make it possible for you to create a 48 line of writing. The point should also be sensitive enough to 49 ink from running when the pen is lifted.A point that does not block the 50 may lee drops of ink, 51 you pick the pen up and put it down again.

52,the pen should make a thick, dark line. Fine—line pens may 53 bad handwriting,but fine,delicate lines do not command 54 next to printed text,as, 55 ,a signature on a printed letter. A broad line ,on other hand,gives an impression of confidence and authority (权威).

36. A. many B. few C. pleasant D. important 37. A.1ooks B. reason C. value D. advantages 38. A. once B. if C. because D. though 39. A. convenient B. easy C. hard D. difficult 40. A. hey B. easy C. hard D. safe

41. A. taking B. finding C. determining D. seeking

42. A. stronger B. weaker C. Smaller D.1arger

43. A. prefer B. recommend C. prepare D. demand

44. A. hardly B. allow C. never D. Still

45. A. thick B. 1ight C.1ong D. soft

46. A. change B. allow C. reduce D. press

47. A They B. One C. This D. Some

48. A thin B. rough C. black D. Smooth

49. A prevent B. free C. protect D. Remove

50. A way B. Sight C. flow D. Stream

51. A so B. as C. and D. Yet

52. A Meanwhile B. Generally C. Afterwards D. Finally

53. A show up B. differ from C. Break down D. compensate for

54. A attention B. support C. respect D. Admission

55. A at most B. For example C. in brief D. on purpose

2011年When I begin planning to move to Auckland to study, my mother was worried about a lack of jobs and cultural differences. Ignoring these ___36___, I got there in July 2010. __37__ I arrived, I realized the importance of getting a job __38__ my living experience. Determined to do this __39__ , I spent several weeks going door-to-door for a job, but found __40__ response(回应).

One afternoon, I walked into a building to ask __41__ there were my job opportunities(机会). The people there advised me not to continue my job search in that __42__. As I was about to __43__, a man who had been listening roached me and asked me to wait outside __44__. Nearly ten minutes later, he __45__. He asked me about my plans and encouraged me to stay __46__. Then he offered to take me to Royal Oak to __47__ a job.

I was a little surprised, but had a __48__ feeling about him. Along the way, I realized that I had __49__ resumes(简历). Seeing this, the man __50__ at his business partner’s office to make me fif __51__ copies. He also ge me some __52__ on dressing and speaking. I handed out my resumes and went home feeling very __53__. The following day, I received a __54__ from a store in Royal Oak offering me a job.

It seems that the world always __55__ to you when you need it. And this time, it was a complete stranger who turned out to be a real blessing.

36.A.dous B.concerns C.instructions D.reasons

37.A.Even if B.Every time C.Now that D.Soon after

38.A.of B.at C.for D.with

39.A. on my own B.on my way C.by any chance D.by the day

40.A.any B.much C.some D.little

41.A.why B.wherever C.whether D.whenever

42.A.direction B.attitude C.language D.manner

43.A.answer B.work C.lee D.refuse

44.A.for ever B.at any time C.as usual D.for a while

45.A.returned B.hesitated C.passed D.regretted

46.A.silent B.busy C.positive D.comfortable

47.A. pick out B.search for C.take on D.give up

48.A.dull B.good C.guilty D.general

49.A.made use of B.taken care of C.run out of D.become tired of

50.A.stopped B.knocked C.glanced D.eared

51.A.right B.more C.former D.different

52.A.pressures B.agreements C.impressions D.suggestions 53.A.lonely B.funny C.disointed D.satisfied

54.A.call B.tip C.present D.report

55.A.turns off B.goes over C.gives back D.looks up

2012年

When I settled in Chicago,my new city seemed so big and unfriendly, Then I had a 36 problem and had to go to hospital for a 37 examination.

It seemed a small 38 compared to the one I was about to face ,but things started to go 39 right from the beginning , Not hing a car or 40 the city, I was depending on a couple of buses to get me from A to B, 41 I’d left myself plenty of time, soon it was 42 I was going to be late, as I had mistakenly boarded a bus that was taking me in the 43 direction.

I 44 the bus and stood on the pement not knowing what to do, I looked into the eyes of a 45 , who was trying to get past me, 46 , instead of moving on ,she stopped to ask if I was 47 , After I explained my 48 to her, she pointed to a bus stop across the street , where a bus would take me back into the city to my 49 . Sitting there waiting, I felt 50 that someone had been willing to help . 51 , hearing a horn (喇叭) nearby, I looked up to see a car with my new friend 52 at me to get in, She had returned to offer me a 53 to the hospital.

Such unexpected 54 from a passer-by was a lovely gift to receive. As I climbed out of the car at the hospital and turned to thank her, she smiled and told me not to lose 55 , for all things are possible.

36. A. physical B. treling C. social D. housing

37. A. scientific B. final C.previousD. thorough

38A. chance B. challenge C. success D. error

39. A. wrong B. easy C. fast D. ahead

40. A. leing B. visiting C. knowing D. reciating

41. A. Although B. Since C. Unless D. Once

42. A. strange B. necessary C. obvious D. important

43. A. same B. right C. general D. opposite

44. A. looked at B. waited for C. got off D. ran into

45. A. driver B. friend C. stranger D. gentleman

46. A. Especially B. Surprisingly C. Probably D. Normally

47. A. nervous B. excited C. OK D. dangerous

48. A. idea B. motivation C. excuse D. situation

49. A. ointmentB. apartment C. direction D. station

50A. afraid B. grateful C. certain D. disointed

51. A. Thus B. Then C. Perhaps D. Surely

52. A. staring B. laughing C. wing D. shouting

53. A. lift B. suggestion C. bike D. guidebook

54. A. results B. news C. kindness D. earance

55. A. Power B. Faith C. Touch D.Support

2013年

If you want to learn a new language, the very first thing to think about is why. Do you need it for a ___36_____ reason, such as your job or your studies?___37____ perhaps you’re interested in the ___38____ ,films or music of a different country and you know how much it will help to he a ___39____ of the language.

Most people learn best using a variety of ___40____, but traditional classes are an ideal(理想的)start for many people. They ___41___ an environment where you can practice under the ___42___ of someone who’s good at the language. We all lead ___43___ lives and learning a language takes __44___. You will he more success if you study regularly, so try to develop a ___45___. It doesn’t matter if you hen’t got long. Becoming fluent in a language will take years, but learning to get by takes __46____.

Many people start learning a language and soon give up. “I’m too __47___,” they say. Yes, children do learn languages more __48___ than adults, but research has shown that you can learn a language at any ___49___. And learning is good for the health of your brain, too. I’ve also heard people ___50___ about the mistakes they make when ___51___. Well, relax and laugh about your mistakes __52____ you’re much less likely to make them again.

Learning a new language is never ___53___. But with some work and devotion, you’ll make progress. And you’ll be ___54____ by the positive reaction of some people when you say just a few words in ___55___ own language. Good luck!

36. A. technical B. political C. practical D. physical

37. A. After B. So C. Though D. Or

38.A literature B. transport C.agriculture D. medicine

39.A view B. knowledge C. form D. database

40.A paintings B. regulations C. methods D. computers

41.A. protect B. change C. respect D. provide

42.A. control B. command C. guidance D. pressure

43.A. busy B. hy C. simple D. normal

44.A. courage B. time C. energy D. place

45.A. theory B. business C. routine D. project

46.A. some risks B. a lot less C. some notes D. a lot more

47.A. old B. nervous C. weak D. tired

48.A. closely B. quickly C. privately D. quietly

49.A. age B. speed C. distance D. school

50.A. worry B. hesitate C. think D. quarrel

51.A. singing B. working C. bargaining D. learning

52.A. if B. and C. but D. before

53.A. tiresome B. hard C. interesting D. easy

54.A. blamed B. amazed C. interrupted D. informed

55.A. their B. his C. our D. your

2014年河北省普通高考英语最高分

2018年山西高考英语试卷试题及答案解析(WORD文字版)

2013年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试英语试卷难度适中,难度较去年稳中有升,延续以往高考英语的命题思路,梯度把握得比较好,符合2013年全国高考英语考试大纲的要求。不难看出,试卷依然重点考查考生对基础知识的掌握和语言的综合运用能力,试题命题原则、难度,能力测试取向,都与去年基本保持一致,只是考查得更细化了。各题型中规中矩,强调基础、实用,对平时教学中的重难点知识做了全面考查,避免了偏、难、怪的现象,对高中英语教学起到良好的指导作用。

一、听力理解

听力选材多是学生熟悉的日常交际场景,基本没有生僻词语,语速较慢,侧重考查考生在规定时间内对听到的语料的反应能力和理解能力。听力的干扰因素主要在于部分题目备选项在听力原文材料中可听到,迷惑性强,混淆较大,难以判断。对于平时听力训练不够的学生是个较大的挑战。但因为今年听力依然不计入总分,考生和家长都不会太在意,但从长远来看,学生要加强对听的重视程度,毕竟听是听、说、读、写中首要的语言能力。

二、单项选择

单项填空考查的知识点比较全面,分布比较合理。考查了冠词、非谓语动词、情态动词、介词、连词、形容词、动词、动词短语词义的辨析、时态、情景交际、省略和名词性从句。非谓语动词、时态和连词(状语从句)均考查了两次,这三个语法点也是平时教学的重难点知识,但是对这三个语法点的考查方式比较简单,易得分。对冠词、介词、情态动词、省略和名词性从句的考查虽中规中矩,但是需要考生对基础知识掌握得非常扎实,否则也会失一到两分,比如34题考查race against time的介宾搭配,是个很容易遗忘的知识点。学生失分题还有23题,考查动词词义辨析及一词多义,这是学生的软肋;30题考查动词短语搭配,也是易混淆的词组,易失分。总体上来说,单选题有区分度。

三、完形填空

近几年完形填空都选取富有思想性和教育性的语篇材料作为试题,能力测试的同时注重培养学生的情感,引发他们的思考。今年的语篇是一篇夹叙夹议的文章,从文体上来说和去年不同(去年是一篇说明文),但是延续了2011年以前的出题风格;从内容上来说贴近生活,描述了作者的一次经历,体验残疾人的生活及感想,考生易融入情境,入手容易。文章考点选项设计全面,以实词为主,主要考查了动词、形容词、副词、名词、非谓语及句与句之间连接词等,而且都是高频词汇,基本没有生僻词,且对上下文逻辑理解的考查贯穿始终,读懂全文基本含义应该问题不大,但是个别细节之处需要细心揣摩语境,选出最佳答案,就有一定的难度,比如39题,很容易错选成D项,这就是因为语境利用不当造成的。此外,考生还容易犯错的就是近义词辨析,如52题,direction、way、path都有道路、方向之意,在这篇文章的语境中选出最佳答案就有一定的`难度。总体而言,完形填空想拿满分不易,但也不会失分太多。

四、阅读理解

今年阅读理解的5篇文章选材地道,贴近生活实际,体裁多样。在选材上继续保持了知识性、趣味性强,信息量不是很大,语篇长度适中,题材与体裁广泛的特点,彰显文化特色,考查考生快速获取、处理、分析信息的能力。

今年的5篇阅读理解文章整体难度不大,学生答题情况应该比较好。

A篇:记叙文,夹叙夹议,描述作者的省钱之道,语篇易于理解。题目设置以细节题为主,57题、58题较容易,59题考查主旨大意,易把握,56题干扰项较多,产生干扰的主要原因是原文第一段有几句话都是回答这一题的,可是学生只注意到其中一部分或者因为一个生词overbook受到干扰,所以这一题有难度。

B篇:科技说明文,一项在婴儿身上所做的实验,证明新生儿就有判断力。题目设置以细节题和推断题为主。虽然是大多考生最不喜欢的文体,但是由于题目设置简单,易得分。

C篇:社科类说明文,内容围绕很多人在谈话过程中会装他们读过某些书、理解某些作家展开,分析了其中的原因及作者的看法。文章难度略微提升,题型涉及细节信息、推理判断和作者态度。这篇文章的细节题设置也需要逻辑推理,不是简单地从文章里找到原句就可以的,所以有一定的难度,比如64题、67题考查作者情感态度,需要考生很好地运用最后一段括号里的内容。

D篇:应用文,介绍了英国国家美术馆,设置了3个题,都很简单,基本不需要读完全文,可以先看题再回到文章里查找所需信息,这篇文章可以为之后的答题争取更多的时间。

七选五这种题型是第3年考,总体难度不是很大,学生通过抓住关键词、分析语段的结构、意思的顺延等基本上能定位答案。两个干扰选项句子可排除性很强,干扰力度不大。学生答题的正确率应该比较高。

五、短文改错

今年短文改错难度较大,学生容易下手但得分率不高。考点虽分布均匀,但不易察觉地考查了介词、代词、连词、名词、动词、副词、冠词的固定搭配,都是细小的知识,稍不注意就漏掉了一个点。因为改错更加考查学生综合运用语言的能力,在改错题上,学生还是会拉开一定的差距。

六、书面表达

书面表达的设计继续沿袭了近几年的风格,贴近学生生活,给笔友写信寻求其帮忙接机。选题合乎情理,符合考纲中贴近学生生活这一要求,这种题目让90%以上的考生有内容可写,下笔容易。主要内容的提示给学生一个纲要的指导,使考生有发挥水平的空间,虽下笔容易但是得高分不易。

从整个试卷来看,考生的语言基本功扎实与否,直接关系到能否得到较理想的分数,因为本套试题突出了基础知识和基本技能在英语学习中的地位,而且基础知识的考查非常细化,在单选和改错中考查小词的比重加大了。此外,考查考生运用语境解决问题的能力依然是重中之重,考点在语境中的贯穿非常明显,关键在于能否发现他们之间的逻辑关系。因此,我个人认为,在今后的英语学习中,学生还是必须加强对基本功训练,夯实基础,从听、说、读、写四方面培养自己综合运用英语的能力,还要培养从题干中体会隐含语境的能力。

广东高中2014年起,文理不分科,是不是指高考时要像中考一样按总分录取?而不是看文理的分?

理综类各科平均分

语文平均分102.79 最高145;数学平均.54 最高150;英语平均104.84 最高149;综合平均200.55 最高295。

文史类各科平均分

语文平均分为100.2 最高145;英语平均分96.17 最高149;数学平均100.41 最高150;综合平均172.85 最高275。

高考状元

北京市文科状元,清华附中孙一先同学,704分。

2014年北京录取主要日程安排

飞行专业单独录取:7月6日;本科提前批:7月7日至10日;本科一批:7月11日——10日;本科二批:7月18日——24日;本科三批:7月25日——31日;专科填报专科志愿:8月1日——2日;专科提前批、高职单招 8月3日——7日;专科普通批:8月8日——10日

2018年云南高考英语试卷试题及答案解析(WORD文字版)

1、2014年,广东高考政策肯定保持稳定,各科分值也不会有任何变化,仍然是:语文、数学、英语每科总分150分,文科综合/理科综合300分,总分750分。

2、包括英语科目在内,高考一年多考是改革趋势,未来广东也很有可能实行。广东会努力尝试高考英语一年多考。首先可能在占英语总成绩10%(15分)的听说考试部分入手,率先进行一年多考,将学生最好的一次成绩计入高考总分。

3、广东英语什么时候不参与高考,目前还无法确定。

4、教育部新确定的高考方案可能会出现以下几个变化:

第一、高考录取原则有望实行“语数外+学业水平测试+综合素质评价”;

第二,取消一考定终身,有望从英语一年两考试点开始,英语还是以计分方式进入高考总分;

第三,减少考试科目,高考考试时可能只考语文和数学两大科目;

第四,探索文理不分科,比如语文和数学高考试卷可能不会再分文理科;

第五,除了语数外三门学科外,所有学科都要进行学业水平测试。

第六,学业水平测试中有3门成绩将带入高考成绩。这里指的3门具体是高校针对每个专业提出3门学业水平测试的要求,而报考该高校该专业的考生在大学录取时会将这3门学测成绩计入高考总分。“

2015江苏高考英语试题难不难

2018年云南高考英语试卷试题及答案解析(WORD文字版)

2013年高考英语课标卷总体难度适中,梯度把握良好,第一时间解读如下:

一.总体难度和容量保持稳定

今年的高考维持了自2009年以来新课标卷的构成,保持为:单项填空15题,每题1分,总分15分;完形填空20题,每题1.5分,总分30分;阅读理解20题(其中,任务型阅读5题),每题2分,总分40分;短文改错共10个错,每个错1分,总分10分;书面表达25分。听力20题,每题1.5分,总分30,但题型不在6月8日考试当天出现,云南考生沿承9月和次年3月参加听力考试,择其较优成绩计入总分的方式进行。每个题型的正确选项分布规律和往年一样,依然是平均分布。整个考试较好地体现了难度控制、能力强调、公平性和区分度的原则。

二.单个题型难度调整变化较大

撇开整体试卷难度不计,逐个就题型来看,听力、单项填空、短文改错较往年难度持平,但完形填空、阅读理解和书面表达三个题型变化较大。首先,完形填空难度有所下降,在经历了2011年情节曲折不易解的记叙文题材、2012年社科说明文题材后,今年再次回归情节通俗易懂、上下关联强烈、易解的记叙文题材。其次,分值最高的阅读理解充分体现了“立足语篇、强调应用”的命题原则,总体来说难度略有上升,其中A篇和C篇,沿承2011年和2012年部分篇幅的特点,设题巧妙,更加强调在理解文章主旨、解析句段含义的基础上得出正确答案;任务型阅读和前两年相比也有难度上的提升,答案规律性减弱,同样需要在理解、读懂的基础上进行解题。最后,书面表达具有很强的时代感,和网购及传播中国文化有衔接,同时,对于模板的依赖性减弱而灵活发挥的要求增强——从这个层面讲,书面表达难度也略有上升。

三.2014高考预测和建议

从2013年高考预测高考,可得以下结论:

1.单项填空、短文改错、完形填空三个题型,解题技巧和答案规律明显(题型正确选项同往年一样平均分布),故而,掌握题型解题规律,明悉答案分布规律,无论在今后哪一年的考试中都仍将继续是提分、保持高分的.基础利器,考生很有必要尽早掌握。

2.2012年高考突显了对动词的考查,几乎占到单项填空半数题量,2013年的高考沿承此趋势,继续加大对动词,尤其是动词短语的考查,单项填空有2题考点为动词短语,完形填空填空更是破天荒出现了3题动词短语考查,因此,备考中,动词及动词短语的复习必须放到一个新的高度来重视;

3.“得阅读者得天下”一向是高三考生的至理名言,但是,从今年的试题来看,单纯依靠解题技巧、坑蒙拐骗规律来猜答案的做法必将遭遇阅读题得分的“寒冬”,深度解读文段在2011年和2012年个别篇章中已然成为正确解题的前提条件,在2013年高考中趋势更加明显。与此同时,单纯依靠模板来构建作文,或是死抱陈旧古板素材开展练习的方法,都已无法适应2013年的书面表达要求,关注时代变化和中国元素会是未来书面表达的新趋势。所以,重视基础,扩展词汇量,培养语感,强化理解,与时俱进,深化能力,变“被动知识”为“主动知识”将是2014乃至未来提高阅读理解和书面表达得分的最有效方法。

总结:世上无难事,只怕有心人。高考英语卷课标卷年年有变化,但变化尽在掌握之中,皆有规律可循。对像云南考生一样有2次听力考试机会的学生来说,暑是开始准备9月第一次听力考试的最好时机,也是提前科学备考,深度剖析考试规律技巧的最佳阶段,及时当勉励,岁月不待人,的考生们要迅速行动起来啊!

2015年高考英语科考试已经结束,考后,学生交流,感觉如下:

1、英语听力 与2013和2014年高考英语听力感觉差不多,语速适中,语音清晰,但是有的题目还是与2013和2014年一样,比较难以判断,容易选错。

2、单项选择 与2013和2014年高考单项选择题相比,尤其与2014年相比,难度有所下降,趋于正常,与学生平时所学内容相关性较大,比较全面地考查了所学的基础知识,学生感觉平和,没有2014年学生考后反应那么强烈、那么悲催。

3、完型填空 完型填空是一篇记叙文,很好地体现了2015年江苏高考考纲的要求。学生普遍认为文章内容比较容易理解,有利于学生推理、分析、判断,选出合理的答案,与前两年相比,难度应该有所下降。

4、阅读理解 阅读理解仍然传承前两年的特点,试卷的阅读量比较大,最后一篇仍然设计六道选题。话题不偏不怪,学生感觉比较熟悉,但是根据部分成绩好的同学的反映来看,题目设计有点难度,判断起来有点难,但是与2013和2014年相比,学生不感觉太纠结,感觉还好。

5、任务型阅读 学生对任务型阅读的反映还是比较有难度,传承2013和2014年的特点,有一定的难度,题目信息寻找比较困难,考查学生能力的题目较多,对一般同学来说,找准并写对答案,非常不容易,学生感觉10分钟时间不够用,有点急。

6、书面表达 书面表达仍然用2014年的概括类写作形式,学生对这样的写作形式有心理准备,话题有关交通法规意识和理念方面的情况,内容不太生疏。但是学生感觉要用 30个字来很好地进行描述,确实不易,因为所给的图文信息量较大,有相当一部分学生概括的能力达不到,所以,今年的高考书面表达有点难,估计作文得高分不易。

总之,今年高考的英语试卷,与2014年相比,总体难度有所下降,与2013年难度相当,陈加军认为,今年高考英语省均分将略有上升,有利于和谐。

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